Respuesta :
Answer: a) 1%
Step-by-step explanation:
1st draw and 2nd draw and 3rd draw and 4th draw
[tex]\dfrac{13}{52}[/tex] x [tex]\dfrac{12}{51}[/tex] x [tex]\dfrac{11}{50}[/tex] x [tex]\dfrac{39}{49}[/tex] = [tex]\dfrac{66,924}{6,497,400}[/tex]
= 0.01
= 1%
Answer:
The odds are about 1%
Step-by-step explanation:
In order to find this, start by determining the likelihood of drawing a diamond on the first draw.
13/52
Next subtract one from each of those numbers to get the likelihood of drawing one again (since we removed one on the first draw).
12/51
Next do this a third time, subtracting one from both numbers.
11/50
Finally, use the opposite for the last draw since we want it to not be a diamond.
39/49
Now, to get the probability, multiply them all together.
13/52 * 12/51 * 11/50 * 39/49 = .01 = 1%