Which statement is true?
A.
The x-intercept of f(x) is equal to the x-intercept of g(x).

B.
The y-intercept of f(x) is equal to the y-intercept of g(x).

C.
The y-intercept of f(x) is greater than the y-intercept of g(x).

D.
The x-intercept of f(x) is greater than the x-intercept of g(x).

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chikafujiwara chikafujiwara · Answer 1 · 2019-05-03T20:58:41+02:00

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

We can see in the graph f(x) that the x intercept is [tex](1,0)[/tex].

In the table of g(x), we can see that the x intercept is [tex](-1,0)[/tex].

Since [tex]1>-1[/tex], the x intercept of the graph f(x) is greater than the x intercept of graph g(x).

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kudzordzifrancis kudzordzifrancis · Answer 2 · 2019-05-03T21:05:01+02:00

ANSWER

D. The x-intercept of f(x) is greater than the x-intercept of g(x).

EXPLANATION

From the graph, f(x) touches the y-axis at y=-1.

The y-intercept of -1

The graph touches the x-axis at x=1.

This is the x-intercept.

From the table, the y-intercept is the point with x-coordinate of zero.

From the table, x=0 when y=1.

The y-intercept of g(x) is 1.

The x-intercept is where y=0.

The x-intercept is -1.

The x-intercept of f(x), which is 1, is greater than the x-intercept of g(x), which is -1

The correct choice is D.