The distribution of in-state annual tuition for all colleges and universities in the United States is bimodal. What is one possible reason for this bimodality?

Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that the one of the popssible reasons for this bimodality might be because private colleges and public colleges tend to differ in amount of tuition. Since they may differ in the amount then there is no way to focus on a single aspect since it will affect only one and not the other.

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The distribution of​ in-state annual tuition for all colleges and universities in the United States is bimodal. What is one possible reason for this​ bimodality?

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The distribution of in-state annual tuition for all colleges and universities in the United States is bimodal. What is one possible reason for this bimodality?