Answer: False.
Step-by-step explanation:
This says;
If we have an interval I, f(x) is increasing if, for any two x1, x2 such that:
x1 ∈ I and x2 ∈ I.
where x2 > x1, ----> f(x1) > f(x2).
An increasing function means that, if the value of x increases, also does the value of f(x).
Particularly, here we have that x2 > x1
so x can increase from x1 to x2.
But we have that f(x1) > f(x2)
So here we can see that the actual value of f(x) decreases as x increases.
Then this is not a increasing function, so the statement is false.
