brodybrown90231 brodybrown90231

01-09-2020
Mathematics

contestada

Use known logical equivalences to prove that a → (b → c) is logically equivalent to (a ^ b) → c.

Respuesta :

belgrad belgrad

06-09-2020

Answer:-

a ∨ ( b ∨ c ) ⇔ (a ∨ b )∨ c ⇔ (a∧b)∨c ⇔(a∧b)→c

Step-by-step explanation:

Explanation :-

we know that b→ c ⇔ b∨c

Replacing b→ c ⇔ b ∨ c , we get

a → b ∨ c ,

By the same rule b→ c ⇔ b∨c

⇒ a ∨ ( b ∨ c )

Now

a ∨ ( b ∨ c ) ⇔ (a ∨ b )∨ c ⇔ (a∧b)∨c ⇔(a∧b)→c

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